Free Test | 15 Question Report a question What's wrong with this question? You cannot submit an empty report. Please add some details. 0% 123456789101112131415 Test your knowledge with our 15 question free test! 1 / 15 1. What are the capacities of the batteries? a) MAIN BAT 24 V / 44 Ah, EMER BAT 24 V / 17 Ah. b) Both batteries 28.5 V / 17 Ah. c) MAIN BAT 28.5 V / 44 Ah, EMER BAT 28.5 V / 17 Ah. d) Both batteries 24 V / 44 Ah. 2 / 15 2. What is the max differential pressure allowed to select the "OVBD" valve to full open position? a) 6.35 PSI b) 2 PSI. c) 0.5 PSI d) 1 PSI. 3 / 15 3. What is the max cabin pressure differential? a) 20.3 PSI. b) 4 PSI. c) -0.5 PSI. d) 6.35 PSI. The outflow valves will automatically open if the cabin pressure differential exceeds 6.5 PSI, this is limited by a manometric capsule. 4 / 15 4. The wingspan of the ATR72 is: a) 27.05 m b) 21.05 m c) 29.15 m d) 21.4 m 5 / 15 5. A red "ELEC SMK" light illuminated on EWD, can indicate smoke detected in the air extraction duct from which of the following areas? a) Flight deck. b) Between the avionics compartment and the extraction fan. c) Avionics compartment. d) Electrical compartment. 6 / 15 6. The "EMER BAT CHG" fault light comes on when: a) A failure of the charge contactor. b) Battery overheat, detected by MFC (automatic disconnection) and a failure of the charge contactor. c) Battery overheat, detected by MFC (automatic disconnection). d) Battery under voltage only. 7 / 15 7. Each engine is equipped with: a) Only one fire detection loop. b) Two fire detection loops mounted in parallel. c) Two fire detection loops mounted in series. d) Three fire detection loops mounted in series. 8 / 15 8. Indications of a tail strike? a) Damaged tail prop. b) Tail strike warning indicator on the FWS. c) Scraps on the tail, or tail bumper is pressed into the red indicator. d) Heavy buffet felt through the control column after takeoff. Scraps on the tail, or tail bumper is pressed into the red indicator. Tail prop is only used when the aircraft is parked on stand. ATRs aren't equipped with tail strike indicators on the FWS. Heavy buffet on rotation is a sign of a stall. 9 / 15 9. In AUTO, the normal cabin rate of descent is: a) -620ft/min b) -550ft/min c) -400ft/min d) -1500ft/min The values for cabin rate of change are: +550 ft/min during cabin climb (1) up to ZA = 20 000 ft +620 ft/min during cabin climb above ZA = 20 000 ft -400 ft/min during cabin normal descent -500 ft/min during cabin rapid descent (DESCENT RATE pb selected FAST). 10 / 15 10. Which areas of the ATR are unpressurised? a) There are no unpressurised areas. b) Radome, Gear sections, Empennage. c) Radome, nose gear section. d) Empennage, Gear sections, Avionics bay 11 / 15 11. The Flaps 15 limiting speed is: a) 160 kt b) 185 kt c) 180 kt d) 170 kt 12 / 15 12. Where are the packs located? a) Both located in the empennage. b) Both located in the left gear fairing. c) One pack in each landing gear fairing. d) Both located in the right gear fairing. The packs cool, remove moisture and pressurise bleed air. The two packs are installed in the main gear landing fairings and operate automatically and independently. 13 / 15 13. When should the exhaust mode push-button be set on "OVBD"? a) In case of an extract fan failure on ground. b) For all ground operations. c) Whilst ENG 2 is running in HOTEL mode. d) In case of an extract fan failure in flight. 14 / 15 14. Stick-pusher is inhibited: a) On ground and as long as flaps are not retracted. b) On ground and for 10 seconds after lift off. c) On ground and as long as TO INHIBIT is on. d) On ground only. Stick pusher activation is inhibited: On ground During 10 s after liftoff In flight, provided radio altimeter is operative, when the aircraft descends below 500 ft. 15 / 15 15. In case of ADC 1 failure, the digital controller uses as reference aircraft static air pressure generated by: a) ADC 2 and CM 2 altimeter baro setting. b) ADC 2 and 1013hpa. c) 1013hpa and CM 2 altimeter baro setting. d) ADC 2 and CM 1 altimeter baro setting. Your score is The average score is 69%
