Free Test | 15 Question Report a question What's wrong with this question? You cannot submit an empty report. Please add some details. 0% 123456789101112131415 Test your knowledge with our 15 question free test! 1 / 15 1. Which areas of the ATR are unpressurised? a) Radome, nose gear section. b) There are no unpressurised areas. c) Empennage, Gear sections, Avionics bay d) Radome, Gear sections, Empennage. 2 / 15 2. Where are the packs located? a) Both located in the right gear fairing. b) Both located in the empennage. c) Both located in the left gear fairing. d) One pack in each landing gear fairing. The packs cool, remove moisture and pressurise bleed air. The two packs are installed in the main gear landing fairings and operate automatically and independently. 3 / 15 3. The wingspan of the ATR72 is: a) 29.15 m b) 21.4 m c) 21.05 m d) 27.05 m 4 / 15 4. The Flaps 15 limiting speed is: a) 160 kt b) 180 kt c) 185 kt d) 170 kt 5 / 15 5. What is the max cabin pressure differential? a) 20.3 PSI. b) 6.35 PSI. c) -0.5 PSI. d) 4 PSI. The outflow valves will automatically open if the cabin pressure differential exceeds 6.5 PSI, this is limited by a manometric capsule. 6 / 15 6. When should the exhaust mode push-button be set on "OVBD"? a) For all ground operations. b) Whilst ENG 2 is running in HOTEL mode. c) In case of an extract fan failure on ground. d) In case of an extract fan failure in flight. 7 / 15 7. What are the capacities of the batteries? a) MAIN BAT 28.5 V / 44 Ah, EMER BAT 28.5 V / 17 Ah. b) Both batteries 24 V / 44 Ah. c) Both batteries 28.5 V / 17 Ah. d) MAIN BAT 24 V / 44 Ah, EMER BAT 24 V / 17 Ah. 8 / 15 8. The "EMER BAT CHG" fault light comes on when: a) Battery under voltage only. b) A failure of the charge contactor. c) Battery overheat, detected by MFC (automatic disconnection). d) Battery overheat, detected by MFC (automatic disconnection) and a failure of the charge contactor. 9 / 15 9. In case of ADC 1 failure, the digital controller uses as reference aircraft static air pressure generated by: a) 1013hpa and CM 2 altimeter baro setting. b) ADC 2 and 1013hpa. c) ADC 2 and CM 2 altimeter baro setting. d) ADC 2 and CM 1 altimeter baro setting. 10 / 15 10. A red "ELEC SMK" light illuminated on EWD, can indicate smoke detected in the air extraction duct from which of the following areas? a) Between the avionics compartment and the extraction fan. b) Electrical compartment. c) Flight deck. d) Avionics compartment. 11 / 15 11. Each engine is equipped with: a) Only one fire detection loop. b) Three fire detection loops mounted in series. c) Two fire detection loops mounted in parallel. d) Two fire detection loops mounted in series. 12 / 15 12. What is the max differential pressure allowed to select the "OVBD" valve to full open position? a) 1 PSI. b) 6.35 PSI c) 2 PSI. d) 0.5 PSI 13 / 15 13. Stick-pusher is inhibited: a) On ground and as long as TO INHIBIT is on. b) On ground only. c) On ground and for 10 seconds after lift off. d) On ground and as long as flaps are not retracted. Stick pusher activation is inhibited: On ground During 10 s after liftoff In flight, provided radio altimeter is operative, when the aircraft descends below 500 ft. 14 / 15 14. In AUTO, the normal cabin rate of descent is: a) -400ft/min b) -620ft/min c) -550ft/min d) -1500ft/min The values for cabin rate of change are: +550 ft/min during cabin climb (1) up to ZA = 20 000 ft +620 ft/min during cabin climb above ZA = 20 000 ft -400 ft/min during cabin normal descent -500 ft/min during cabin rapid descent (DESCENT RATE pb selected FAST). 15 / 15 15. Indications of a tail strike? a) Scraps on the tail, or tail bumper is pressed into the red indicator. b) Damaged tail prop. c) Tail strike warning indicator on the FWS. d) Heavy buffet felt through the control column after takeoff. Scraps on the tail, or tail bumper is pressed into the red indicator. Tail prop is only used when the aircraft is parked on stand. ATRs aren't equipped with tail strike indicators on the FWS. Heavy buffet on rotation is a sign of a stall. Your score is The average score is 69%
